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Basic Question 6 of 6
A mortgage loan may fail to be conforming because ______
II. the loan-to-value ratio is too high.
III. the payment-to-income ratio is too high.
IV. the average life is too short.
I. the loan balance exceeds the maximum permitted by the underwriting standard.
II. the loan-to-value ratio is too high.
III. the payment-to-income ratio is too high.
IV. the average life is too short.
User Contributed Comments 4
| User | Comment |
|---|---|
| danlan2 | What does conforming mean? |
| danlan2 | Conforming: qualified for agency as MBS |
| quanttrader | conforming -- ie. agency mbs |
| warnggg | Why iii? I couldn’t find it anywhere |
I just wanted to share the good news that I passed CFA Level I!!! Thank you for your help - I think the online question bank helped cut the clutter and made a positive difference.
Edward Liu
Learning Outcome Statements
describe fundamental features of residential mortgage loans that are securitized
CFA® 2025 Level I Curriculum, Volume 4, Module 19.